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From: | John Graham-Cumming |
Subject: | Re: Post 3.81 $? handling |
Date: | Sun, 30 Apr 2006 07:18:17 +0200 |
User-agent: | Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-US; rv:1.6) Gecko/20040208 Thunderbird/0.5 Mnenhy/0.6.0.104 |
Paul D. Smith wrote:
$ cat makefile foo: bar ; @echo "\$$? = $?" bar: ; $ touch foo $ make$? =
OK. I see that works, now why? I'm assuming that the difference between bar: and bar: ; is that GNU Make thinks that it's updated bar in the latter case, but in the former it does not.
What I'm not sure about is why $? contains bar if I do bar: How does that come about? Is that because bar: is a 'FORCE' target and hence GNU Make is pretending it's up to date and hence it gets put into $?
John.
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