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RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?


From: Robert P. J. Day
Subject: RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?
Date: Sat, 22 Dec 2007 06:32:23 -0500 (EST)

On Sat, 22 Dec 2007, Dave Korn wrote:

> On 21 December 2007 21:55, Robert P. J. Day wrote:
>
> >   is there any problem with invoking $(call fred) if "fred" hasn't
> > been defined?  that is, is "call" defined to just quietly pass over
> > that and keep going?  thanks.
>
>   No problem at all, and yes, if you call an undefined variable, it expands to
> nothing - which of course is then unchanged by applying the arguments since it
> doesn't contain any $(1) etc.  You'll get a warning message if you've used
> "--warn-undefined-variables" on the command line.
>
>     cheers,
>       DaveK

i suspected as much, i was just curious if it was a standard make
technique to do that sort of thing.  thanks.

rday
--

========================================================================
Robert P. J. Day
Linux Consulting, Training and Annoying Kernel Pedantry
Waterloo, Ontario, CANADA

http://crashcourse.ca
========================================================================




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