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is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?
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From: |
Robert P. J. Day |
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Subject: |
is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define? |
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Date: |
Fri, 21 Dec 2007 16:54:52 -0500 (EST) |
is there any problem with invoking $(call fred) if "fred" hasn't
been defined? that is, is "call" defined to just quietly pass over
that and keep going? thanks.
rday
========================================================================
Robert P. J. Day
Linux Consulting, Training and Annoying Kernel Pedantry
Waterloo, Ontario, CANADA
http://crashcourse.ca
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- is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?,
Robert P. J. Day <=